SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI PHÒNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2025 – 2026 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên) Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

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SECTION ONE: CONSTRUCTED-RESPONSE TEST PART ONE: LISTENING COMPREHENSION I. You will hear part of a conversation between Jim – a student and a secretary on campus. Listen and answer the questions by choosing the appropriate letter A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording TWICE. (5 pts.)

1. What do the speakers mainly discuss?

A. A friend’s sickness

B. A math class

C. The school policy

D. The student’s test

2. What is the student’s last name?

A. Raley

B. Purcell

C. Raleigh

D. Kelly

3. Why can’t the secretary give Terry Young’s test to Jim?

A. It is against the law.

B. Jim is not a member of Terry’s family.

C. The secretary cannot find the test.

D. Terry was too sick to take the test.

4. How does the secretary feel about the policy?

A. She agrees with it.

B. She thinks it is odd.

C. She does not enforce it.

D. She is angry about it.

5. What will Jim most probably do?

A. Call his friend

B. Go to the office to get his test

C. Send the secretary a letter

D. Take the test later

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II. You will hear a journalist reporting on a prize for young scientists and engineers. Listen to the talk and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS you hear for each answer in the spaces given. You will hear the recording TWICE. (10 pts.) Lance Arbury: working at a zoo

1. Last year’s winners of the National Science & Engineering Competition were both aged __________.
2. The competition was first held in the year __________.
3. The bicycle at the Big Bang Fair was used to produce __________.
4. The main aim of the Fair is to create interest in __________ in certain branches of science and engineering.
5. About __________ of the people attending the Fair were students.
6. A total of __________ people took part in the competition.
7. One project involved using a fuel extracted from __________ to run a motor vehicle.
8. In the final of the competition, the judges listen to a fairly detailed __________ of each entry.
9. The judges assess the __________ of individuals and teams, as well as their projects.
10. This year’s winners are announced at the next Big Bang Fair in __________.

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PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (10 pts.)

1. Everyone was surprised to see that Daisy blossomed into quite an (EYE) __________.
2. They should be grateful to the thoughtful researchers who have honored them with thorough (CRITIC) __________.
3. In newborns, a (NORMAL) __________ temperature – rather than a fever – may be a sign of serious illness.
4. We are (SKILL) __________ the team to help them be more effective in a competitive market.
5. The non-governmental organisation launched a(n) (PRECEDE) __________ relief effort to support communities affected by the natural disaster.
6. Regardless of the grueling race, the man managed to (DISTANCE) __________ his rivals with unwavering determination and strategic brilliance.
7. My parents find TV commercials nowadays (POWER) __________ annoying, particularly those for motorcars.
8. The landlady felt irritated when the renters turned her kitchen into a greasy and (ODOR) __________ place.
9. He was a(n) (ICON) __________ who always wanted to establish new ideas.
10. Sir Francis Chichester was the first person to sail round the world (HAND) __________ on his one-man boat.

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II. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition or adverb particle to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (10 pts.)

1. Our group is willing to stand __________ opposition __________ the corporations planning to move in and destroy local business.
2. His friends tried to talk him __________ the problem, but it seemed to be __________ his understanding.
3. Maybe the committee should bring the meeting __________ to this Friday instead of having it __________ two weeks’ time.
4. The little boy’s unexpected question threw me __________ balance, and I was at a total loss __________ words.
5. Thanks to the leading-edge medical technologies __________ their disposal, doctors could perform life-saving surgeries __________ precision.
6. She is always running __________ her friends __________ their backs. She won’t have any friends left, I’m afraid.
7. This sort of information is like a red rag __________ a bull __________ the job market.
8. The delight __________ treasure finding doesn’t always hinge __________ acquiring tremendous amounts of jewellery.
9. I’m so tired after work that I often just drop __________ in front of the TV with a paper __________ my face.
10. Let’s make a dash __________ the train now as the rain seems to ease __________.

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III. The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the correction in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (0.) has been done as an example. (10 pts.) Example: (0) become ➝ became TITLE: Travel and the American Identity In the 20th century, with the constructions of a national highway system, movement in the US become direct associated with the automobiles. The resulting growth in car ownership brought millions of Americans access to personal transportation and the opportunity to travel. Increased mobilization meant that taking a vacation became an American tradition, yet in doing so, children learned about their heritage by visiting historical sites and landmarks. Also, national parks regarded as a favorite choice – the pristine beauty of nature providing a sharp contrast to urban sprawl. It was this desire to explore their country which led people to take a family road trip, which became part of American culture. One road came to symbolize the iconic American road trip more than any other – Route 66. Stretched from Chicago to California, it was known as the “mother road” as it saw millions of people make their way across America, all bound to the West. By connecting the main streets of small towns, Route 66 helped transform the far West from a rural frontier into a thriving metropolitan region. However, with an the advent of faster highways, Route 66 fell out of use. Having featured in novels, films, and music, Route 66 now still remains its place like a symbol of the open road, freedom, and opportunity.

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PART THREE: READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and fill each of the numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 pts.) Although there are many strains of antibiotic bacteria now (1) __________ in hospital wards, antibiotics have effectively served (2) __________ their original purpose over the course of the past eighty years. They have been able to treat the infections of countless individuals and will continue to do so. While antibiotics have proven their worth in (3) __________ which many common diseases are viewed. (4) __________ being infected with bacterial pneumonia, for instance, is no longer considered fatal. (5) __________, it is viewed as a mundane infection which can be cured with a simple course of antibiotics. The number of antibiotics available for (6) __________ has also affected their impact on society. Even if one antibiotic is ineffective at treating a disease, (7) __________ are, for most common infections, a host of (8) __________ drugs that can be used to effectively cure the disease. The development of antibiotics over the past eighty years has changed the relationship between humans and disease. Antibiotics have (9) __________ humans the power to fight back effectively (10) __________ microorganisms in a way that would have been considered impossible just a century ago.

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PART FOUR: WRITING I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 pts.)

1. We must do something about the problem even if it costs a lot.
   → However ______________________________________, we must do something about the problem.
2. People’s social background is revealed by what they eat, not their table manners.
   → What gives ______________________________________ is what they eat, not their table manners.
3. Those plays are so popular that the theatre is full every night.
   → Such is the ______________________________________ that the theatre is full every night.
4. When it comes to population, Beijing is much denser than Auckland.
   → Auckland’s population density is ______________________________________.
5. We would prefer them not to have stayed up too late.
   → We would sooner ______________________________________.
6. That rumour about the new construction contracts in the local area is absolutely false.
   → There is ______________________________________.
7. A waiter spilled some soup over Hazel’s new dress last night.
   → Hazel had ______________________________________.
8. It’s quite likely that Jeremy was lying about what Eliot said.
   → Jeremy may ______________________________________.
9. Complete secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
   → Without ______________________________________.
10. “Nothing will persuade us to invest in your project,” they told the young man.
    → They flatly ______________________________________.

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II. Rewrite each of the sentences below in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change this word in any way. You must use NO MORE THAN SIX words. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 pts.)

1. The mice appeared to be totally unaffected by the effects of the drug. (TO)
   → The mice appeared to be __________________________ the effects of the drug.
2. As the deadline approached, Andrew became anxious and, as a result, less efficient. (DREW)
   → As the deadline __________________________ anxious caused him to become less efficient.
3. Pauline’s teachers believe she will get a scholarship if she really wants to. (MIND)
   → According to Pauline’s teachers, she will get the scholarship as long as __________________________ it.
4. They ought to realize it was luck that allowed them to escape serious injuries. (COUNT)
   → They should __________________________ away with only minor injuries.
5. Who do you think is the most suitable candidate for the job? (CUT)
   → Which candidate is __________________________ in your opinion?

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SECTION TWO: SELECTED-RESPONSE TEST
PART ONE: PHONOLOGY I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. (2.5 pts.)

1. A. wapiti   B. wallop   C. wander   D. wasabi
2. A. meniscus   B. menagerie   C. menial   D. meninges
3. A. espionage   B. vestige   C. sabotage   D. rouge
4. A. monsoon   B. neighborhood   C. looseness   D. uprooting
5. A. charade   B. choleric   C. charisma   D. choreography

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress is placed differently from that of the others in each group. (2.5 pts.)

6. A. ameliorate   B. subsidiary   C. constituency   D. aborigine
7. A. tailor-made   B. heat-seeking   C. self-sufficient   D. self-controlled
8. A. synecdoche   B. encomium   C. investiture   D. legislature
9. A. datum   B. harrumph   C. hindsight   D. martyr
10. A. downside   B. downpour   C. downwind   D. downfall

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PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts.)

11. The ratio of applications to sports clubs in our school _____ so far.

A. drastically increased

B. have drastically increased

C. are drastically increasing

D. has been increasing drastically

12. Contrary to everyone’s expectations, the tennis player gave a disappointingly _____ performance last Friday.

A. convincing

B. sparkling

C. lacklustre

D. fruitless

13. We all decreed that _____.

A. there be an end to their quarrel

B. they ended their quarrel then

C. their quarrel be coming to an end

D. their quarrel should put an end to

14. The concrete is _____ by putting metal bars in. This makes it stronger and more durable.

A. reconstructed

B. refurbished

C. reinforced

D. renovated

15. Charles: “Do tourists come here?” Trevor: “Yes, but _____ buy things or contribute to the local company.”

A. quite a few of them

B. not the least of them

C. hardly any of them

D. a good few of them

16. This new manager is up to her ears in work. _____, her secretary has asked for a few days’ leave.

A. All the same

B. By and large

C. On top of that

D. Even so

17. There _____ between 4,000 and 6,000 languages in the world, depending on how you count them.

A. said being

B. are said that

C. say to be

D. are said to be

18. The man was staggering from one side of the street to the other. He was _____ drunk.

A. strong

B. blind

C. hard

D. deep

19. Learning a third language will significantly improve your job _____ in the tourist industry.

A. factors

B. prospects

C. certainties

D. obligations

20. The policeman tried to calm the crowd down when they _____.

A. made a beeline

B. threw off the handle

C. followed their nose

D. ground to a halt

21. Going off on a long holiday is all _____ but you’ve got to get back to work soon.

A. sound and safe

B. well and good

C. alive and kicking

D. loud and proud

22. The professor delivered a lecture on _____.

A. complex quantum theoretical physics

B. complex theoretical quantum physics

C. theoretical physics quantum complex

D. theoretical quantum physics complex

23. They have a _____ of new ideas to make the business more efficient.

A. tactic

B. case

C. blurb

D. host

24. _____, methane can be used as a fuel.

A. It’s produced from the fermentation of organic matter

B. Produced by the fermentation of organic matter

C. The production by fermentation of organic matter

D. Producing the fermentation from organic matter

25. Silently _____.

A. approaching the ship is a school of colourful fish

B. is a school of colourful fish approaching the ship

C. the ship is a school of colourful fish approaching

D. a school of colourful fish approaching the ship is

26. In addition to being a naturalist, Bradley was also a writer _____ the struggle for survival in the wild.

A. who, describing in his novels

B. his novels describe

C. he describes in his novels

D. whose novels describe

27. Going on this diet has really _____ me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic!

A. made

B. had

C. done

D. taken

28. Graham and Tim are talking about Tim’s relationship with his brother.
    Graham: “Do you get along well with your brother, Tim?”
    Tim: “_____”

A. We have never got into fight but sometimes in dispute.

B. That figures! We’re related after all.

C. Well, he likes swimming, and I like reading when free.

D. Mom and Dad always help us with our school work.

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Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

29. The judge threatened to throw the book at him if he committed another offense.

A. commend

B. applaud

C. compliment

D. punish

30. A mediocre student who gets low grades will have difficulties getting into a good college.

A. diligent

B. moronic

C. average

D. advanced

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PART THREE: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to complete each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 40. (5 pts.) II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 41 to 45. (5 pts) 41. How to Use a Bluetooth Speaker

1. First, make sure your Bluetooth speaker is fully charged before turning it on.
2. Once connected, you can play music, podcasts, or any audio content wirelessly. Use the volume button on either the speaker or your phone to adjust the sound.
3. Press and hold the power button until you hear or see a blinking light indicating that it’s in pairing mode.
4. On your phone or other devices, go to the Bluetooth settings and select the speaker from the list of available devices.
5. To disconnect, simply turn off the speaker or switch off Bluetooth on your device. Remember to charge the speaker regularly to ensure optimal performance.

A. a – b – d – c – e

B. a – c – e – d – b

C. a – d – b – e – c

D. a – c – d – b – e

42.

1. Lily: I’m leaving towards marketing because it combines creativity with strategy, which really interests me.
2. James: I’m sure you will, especially if you keep building your skills and gaining experience.
3. James: That sounds like a good fit for you – you’re great at communication and problem-solving.
4. James; Have you decided what career path you want to follow after graduation?
5. Lily: Thanks, I just hope I can find a job that offers both growth and work-life balance

A. d – a – c – e – b

B. c – e – d – a – b

C. b – e – c – a – d

D. a – c – e – b – d

43.

1. As you travel, you’ll see endless stretches of ice and snow that seem untouched by time.
2. Guided by experts, you’ll learn about the unique wildlife and extreme weather conditions that make this region so fascinating.
3. This isn’t just a trip – It’s an experience that will change the way you see the world. Join us and discover the awe – inspiring beauty of the South Pole for yourself.
4. State-of-the-art equipment and experienced guides will ensure your comfort and safety every step of the way.
5. Imagine embarking on a once-in-a-lifetime adventure to the breathtaking South Pole. Our exclusive tour takes you on a journey through some of the most remote and beautiful landscapes on Earth.

A. e – c – d – b – a

B. e – d – c – a – b

C. e – a – b – d – c

D. e – a – c – d – b

44.

1. There’s also a vibrant atmosphere, and I’ve met people from all walks of life, which has really broadened my perspective.
2. I hope you’re doing well. I want to share my thoughts about city life now that I’ve been living here for a few months.
3. On the positive side, I love the convenience – everything from supermarkets to cinemas is just a short walk or bus ride away.
4. Still, I’m trying to focus on the opportunities and enjoy the experience while it lasts.
5. However, I do miss the peace and quiet of the countryside. The constant noise and fast pace can be overwhelming at times, and I sometimes find it hard to relax.

A. b – c – a – e – d

B. c – a – e – b – d

C. a – c – d – e – b

D. b – e – c – a – d

45.

1. One promising type of sustainable energy is tidal power, which harnesses the energy of ocean tides to generate electricity.
2. But in the future, these systems could be expanded so that they provide a significant share of our global energy needs. Therefore, investing in tidal power is a crucial step toward a cleaner and more sustainable future for everyone.
3. One of the greatest advantages of tidal power is its minimal impact on the environment compared to traditional fossil fuels.
4. Although some countries, like the UK and Canada, have already begun building tidal power stations, there is still a long way to go before this resource is widely used.
5. Unlike solar and wind energy, tidal power is extremely reliable because it’s driven by predictable tidal cycles. This technology uses underwater turbines that capture the natural movement of water and create clean, renewable energy.

A. d – e – a – b – c

B. e – d – c – a – b

C. a – e – c – d – b

D. c – d – b – e – a

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to complete each of the questions from 46 to 55. (5 pts.)

For hundreds of years, Rome was arguably the greatest civilization in the world. It started as a small town on the Tiber River in the Italian Peninsula. Then, first as a republic and later as an empire, it grew so that it controlled a huge amount of land in Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East. Then, in the fifth century A.D., the Roman Empire collapsed. Rome would never again be a great power in the world.

There were many reasons that the Roman Empire fell. [I] For instance, there were breakdowns in its political, economic, and social organization. [II] In addition, the empire itself had been split into two halves – an eastern and a western empire. This was done with the intention of strengthening Rome, but in reality, the move actually weakened it. The final major reason for The final major reason for the fall of Rome was a series of invasions of its land by Germanic tribes. [III] For many years before its fall, Rome had been in turmoil. Emperors reigned for short periods of time before they were deposed and replaced by someone else. [IV] The empire was in a seemingly constant state of civil war, which disrupted Roman society. The Romans began to depend upon foreigners to man the armies that they kept on the borders of the empire. These foreigners had little or no allegiance to the empire, so Rome’s defenses were weakened. Rome’s economy also went into decline. Most of the free people in the empire were either rich elites or lowly farmers. There was no strong middle class in the empire. Corruption at all levels of the government caused additional economic problems. In an effort to solve many of these problems, Emperor Diocletian split the Roman Empire into two halves In the late fourth century. The Eastern Roman Empire, which later became known as the Byzantine Empire, started to flourish. Its emperor ruled from the city Constantinople, which was built by Emperor Constantine I. As for the Western Roman Empire, which was ruled from Rome, it declined further. During the fifth century, barbarian invaders conquered much of its territory. Its border lands were overrun. Finally, the last emperor, Romulus Augustus, was overthrown by Germanic invaders led by Odoacer. He then assumed the title of king of Rome.

46. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

A. Why Empires go into Decline

B. Emperor Diocletian of Rome

C. The Eastern and Western Roman Empires

D. The fall of the Roman Empire

47. Which of the following statements does paragraph 2 support?

A. Several factors led to the eventual defeat of Rome.

B. Rome engaged in a long war against Germanic tribes.

C. The first defeat suffered by Rome was in 476.

D. Rome was invaded from both the east and west.

48. What does the author point out by writing that Rome “had been in turmoil” in line 13?

A. Rome’s economy declined

B. Conditions in Rome were steady

C. There was disorder in Rome

D. Rome was mostly at peace

49. The word “allegiance” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.

A. loyalty

B. reference

C. agreement

D. conversion

50. Which of the following is true regarding Rome’s armies?

A. None of them was allowed to enter Rome

B. They were effective at protecting the empire

C. They were led into battle by the emperor

D. The ones on the borders had many foreigners

51. Why does the author talk about the Eastern Roman Empire?

A. To describe some actions of Emperor Constantine I

B. To prove that it outlasted the Byzantine Empire

C. To contrast it with the Western Roman Empire

D. To note that it was not conquered by Odoacer

52. In paragraph 4, the word “He” refers to

A. Odoacer

B. Emperor Diocletian

C. Romulus Augustus

D. Emperor Constantine I

53. What happened to the Western Roman Empire after Diocletian divided it?

A. It was ruled from Constantinople

B. It continued to decline and lose territory

C. It became very strong and rich

D. It attacked the Eastern Roman Empire

54. According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. A very large part of Europe, North America, and the Middle East used to be Rome’s territories.

B. The majority of the Western Roman Empire was invaded in the fifth century.

C. The most obvious reason behind the downfall of the Roman Empire was economic breakdowns.

D. The separation of the empire ran counter to the original purpose of bolstering Rome.

55. Where would the following sentence be best inserted into the passage?
    “In 476, they sacked Rome and overthrew the last Roman emperor in the west.”

A. [IV]

B. [I]

C. [II]

D. [III]

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