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Đề Thi Chuyên Anh 10 Quảng Nam 2025–2026 (Đáp Án & Giải Thích Chi Tiết)

Springboard Education

Trung tâm đầu tiên tại Việt Nam xây dựng chương trình dạy chuyên nghiệp cho kì thi chuyên Anh, HSG tiếng Anh từ cấp địa phương đến cấp Quốc Gia.

Đề thi và Đáp án Chi tiết Kì thi Chuyên Anh 10, Chuyên Anh tỉnh Quảng Nam năm 2025-2026

Đội ngũ anh chị trung tâm Springboard (Nhà Xuân) xin gửi đến các quý phụ huynh, thầy cô, các em học sinh tổng hợp đề thi và đáp án đề thi Chuyên Anh vào lớp 10 tỉnh QUẢNG NAM, thi vào THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm năm 2025-2026 (có đáp án và giải thích chi tiết).

Phần đáp án chi tiết được giới thiệu ở bài viết này là tài liệu được biên soạn trực tiếp bởi đội ngũ chuyên môn Nhà Xuân, đồng thời là bản cập nhật mới nhất trong năm 2025.

Kéo xuống dưới cùng để xem hết đáp án có giải thích chi tiết.

Đề thi Chuyên Anh vào 10, Chuyên Anh tỉnh Quảng Nam năm 2025-2026

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm có 08 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
NĂM HỌC 2025 – 2026
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (chuyên)
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Khóa thi ngày: 03-05/6/2025

Học sinh làm bài trên tờ ANSWER SHEET


SECTION ONE: LISTENING (2.0 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.


PART 1.
Questions 1–5. You will hear a radio interview with Julia Emerson, a young writer. Choose the best answer A, B, or C. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 pt)

  1. According to Julia, nowadays Hollywood producers _____
A. usually think of ideas for films themselves.
B. write screenplays and contact stars.
C. contact agents to find writers for them.
  1. Julia began writing in her spare time when she _____
A. published some articles in a magazine.
B. had an idea for a TV series.
C. came first in a short-story competition.
  1. Julia says that _____
A. she would like to write a version of a classic film.
B. there is a danger she might imitate other films.
C. creative people should think a lot about films.
  1. The theme of the story is _____
A. how our emotions about our family can change.
B. Julia’s relationship with her brothers and sisters.
C. about the importance of having a family.
  1. It appears that the film based on Julia’s screenplay _____
A. must be made within the next few months.
B. won’t be made when the studio has paid Julia.
C. might never be made.

PART 2.
Questions 6–10. You will hear an author talking about his time at school. Decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 pt)

  1. The author enjoyed almost every day that he spent in the expensive public school in Cambria.
  2. The other boys at the school seemed to be okay with day-to-day life at school.
  3. The author’s illness during the first term was so bad that he nearly died.
  4. Because of the illness, the author had to have classes in the library.
  5. The headmaster expected the author to realise how good the time at school had been when he left school.

PART 3.
Questions 11–20. You will hear an engineering student giving a presentation about a research project on design features of the International Space Station. Complete the sentences by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 pt)

LIFE ON THE INTERNATIONAL SPACE STATION

  • Background
    Station was occupied by international teams of scientists over several months.
    Research was done on living conditions.
  • Early Impressions
    The air smelt (11) ______.
    The temperature was easy to turn (12) ______.
    The food had enough variety.
    Communication was (13) ______.
  • Problems
    Difficulties with air filters caused lack of (14) ______.
    It was difficult to keep cabin objects secure.
    Systems were incompatible.
    e.g. there were problems when mixing (15) ______ because of the preservatives.
    The (16) ______ available were not always suitable for their purpose.
    It was difficult to access the (17) ______ for equipment maintenance.
  • Suggested Improvements
    Systems and equipment should undergo much more (18) ______.
    In language training, astronauts needed practice in understanding the controller’s (19) ______.
    There should be less emphasis on (20) ______ and more on other issues.

SECTION TWO: LEXICO – GRAMMAR – COMMUNICATION (3.0 pts)

PART 1.
Questions 21–32. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.2 pts)

  1. ______ to the big city, I have got lost many times.
A. Useless
B. Unused
C. Unfamiliar
D. Unacquainted
  1. University students ______ in linguistics may take courses including phonetics, semantics, and pragmatics.
A. major
B. majoring
C. majored
D. to major
  1. If he hadn’t lost his job last year, he ______ a house of his own now.
A. can buy
B. will buy
C. could buy
D. could have bought
  1. I remember she wore a ______ dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.
A. white Vietnamese cotton
B. Vietnamese white cotton
C. cotton white Vietnamese
D. white cotton Vietnamese
  1. Having been asked to speak at the conference, ______.
A. Dr. Clark’s colleagues felt proud of him
B. some notes were written by Dr. Clark
C. Dr. Clark carefully prepared some notes
D. the audience listened to Dr. Clark carefully
  1. Nowadays, women have more free time as they ______ the household chores.
A. get robots to do
B. have robots done
C. want robots to do
D. help robots do
  1. ______ the medicine than she began to feel better.
A. Only after she had taken
B. Hardly had she taken
C. No sooner had she taken
D. Scarcely had she taken
  1. After all, he only ______. He never does what he promised.
A. speaks with a forked tongue
B. has one foot in the grave
C. holds out an olive branch
D. jumps through hoops
  1. The plague, otherwise known as the Black Death, was a ______ disease.
A. contingent
B. contiguous
C. contagious
D. congenial
  1. There must be something I can do to ______ breaking your favorite teapot.
A. get off with
B. stand in with
C. go in for
D. make up for
  1. The captain has not decided yet where to stop on the journey – we’ll just play it by ______ and see how we feel.
A. mouth
B. ear
C. eye
D. hand
  1. Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.

    Maria: Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?

    Alex: ______. It’s really worrying.

A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. I completely disagree with you
C. I’m of the opposite opinion
D. I can’t agree with you more

PART 2. (0.4 pt)

a. Questions 33–34. Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

  1. She demonstrated her professional competence by completing the project ahead of schedule and under budget.
A. capability
B. productivity
C. reliability
D. responsibility
  1. Never had it occurred to me that Andy would turn out to be a snake in the grass, which is why I foolishly did everything he told me to do and lost all my money.
A. someone who reveals his secrets
B. someone who never keeps his words
C. someone who you can confide in
D. someone who cannot be trusted

b. Questions 35–36. Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

  1. With the final examinations coming very soon, his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits.
A. curiosity
B. boredom
C. confidence
D. apprehension
  1. Last year, they had some financial difficulties when her husband was fired. Together, they weathered the storm and figured out how to keep going.
A. understood a difficult period quickly
B. came safely through a difficult period
C. worked in a difficult period slowly
D. failed to overcome a difficult period

PART 3.
Questions 37–44. Use the word given in every bracket to form a word that fits in the same numbered space in the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.8 pt)

TAKE CARE IN THE SUN

The sun should be enjoyed but (37) ______ (EXPOSE) can cause sunburn, leading to (38) ______ (MATURE) skin ageing and increased risk of skin cancer. It is the ultraviolet rays which cause this; even in the UK they can damage your skin, and UV is much more (39) ______ (POWER) when you go nearer the equator. You should stay out of the sun during the 2 hours around midday, use shade at other times, a sun hat and (40) ______ (TIGHT) woven but loose clothing.

(41) ______ (PROTECT) creams suitable for your skin type can help protect (42) ______ (AVOID) exposed parts of the body. A further sun-related risk is (43) ______ (HEAT), caused by overheating. Avoid strenuous activity during the hottest hours and make sure you drink plenty of (44) ______ (ALCOHOL) drinks (best is water which has been boiled or soft drinks from sealed cans or bottles) to replace body fluids.

(Adapted from Advanced Grammar Practice 2)


PART 4.
Questions 45–50. Read the following passage. There are SIX mistakes in the passage. Find the words that need correction and correct them. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.6 pt)

A DIFFERENCE OF OPINION

A musician friend of mine once went on an English course during his summer holiday. What he really wanted to do was to improve his able to think and react quickly and correctly in spoken English. He said speaking in a foreign language always made him nervous, even after three years of study. It turned out that one of the teachers on the course had very strong views on music, and was not afraid to express it in the lessons. He claimed that music was a drug, just like alcohol or cigarettes, and people who could not live their lives without it were to be pitied. However the subject of the lesson, the teacher always managed to include some reference to this idea. You can imagine that my friend was not very impressed. At the end, he lost his temper, and spent most of the remaining lessons arguing about music and its role in people’s lives. When his course had finished, he came home, still angrily about the experience. However, whether he enjoyed the course or not, my friend had to admit that the teacher’s technique has worked since his nervousness in English had completely disappeared and he was speaking far more fluently than before.

(Adapted from Cambridge Practice Test)
 


SECTION THREE: READING (2.5 pts)

PART 1.
Questions 51–60. Read the passage below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each numbered gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 pt)

BURGLARS BEWARE! DON’T TOUCH THE FOOD

It seems that a burglar’s inability to say no to his stomach could go a long way towards (51) ______ him behind bars. According to the British Dental Journal, ‘criminals appear to be unable to (52) ______ food, chocolate or fruit that they find on (53) ______ into which they enter illegally. There’s also a (54) ______ to leave, at the site, the unconsumed portions.’

For years, forensic experts have examined these food traces in the (55) ______ of finding bite-mark evidence, but with DNA identification now commonplace, investigators try to uncover molecular fingerprints as well. Californian researchers recently wanted to test the (56) ______ of recovering DNA from foods. They organized a dinner party in which guests were asked to (57) ______ themselves to a few bites of whatever they fancied and leave the (58) ______ behind. Cheese, carrots, apples and pizza returned the most complete DNA profiles while chocolate was (59) ______ useless. The researchers think the chocolate failure was more to (60) ______ with the fact that the pieces were small, meaning that less saliva was left behind.

(Adapted from Advanced Testbuilder)

  1. him behind bars.
A. getting
B. sending
C. putting
D. setting
  1. criminals appear to be unable to ______ food…
A. resist
B. decline
C. deny
D. refuse
  1. …they find on ______ into which they enter illegally.
A. houses
B. locations
C. grounds
D. premises
  1. There’s also a ______ to leave, at the site…
A. habit
B. tendency
C. behaviour
D. likelihood
  1. in the ______ of finding bite-mark evidence
A. reason
B. chance
C. hope
D. view
  1. wanted to test the ______ of recovering DNA
A. dependency
B. reliability
C. suitability
D. methodology
  1. guests were asked to ______ themselves…
A. control
B. limit
C. restrain
D. ration
  1. …leave the ______ behind.
A. extra
B. spare
C. excess
D. remains
  1. …while chocolate was ______ useless.
A. hard
B. extremely
C. virtually
D. barely
  1. …more to ______ with the fact that…
A. do
B. make
C. take
D. get

PART 2.
Questions 61–67. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.7 pt)

Most scientists agree that global warming presents the greatest threat to the environment.

There is little doubt that the Earth is getting warmer. In the last century, the average temperature rose about 0.6 degrees C around the world. Many experts warn that global warming will cause sea levels to rise dramatically. In the past 100 years the oceans have risen 10 to 20 cm – but that’s nothing compared to what would happen if, for example, Greenland’s massive ice sheet were to melt.

Just as the evidence is clear that temperatures have risen in the last century, it’s also well established that carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere has increased about 30 per cent, allowing the atmosphere to trap too much heat. However, the exact link, if any, between the increase in carbon dioxide emissions and the higher temperatures is still being disputed.

Most scientists believe that humans, by burning fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum, are largely to blame for the increase in carbon dioxide. But some scientists also point to natural causes, such as volcanic activity.

  1. According to paragraph 1, what is indicated about global warming?
A. It has been exacerbated by recent human activities.
B. It can lead to a considerable rise in sea levels.
C. It has resulted in global ice melting at an alarming rate.
D. It has posed a threat to the lives of coastal communities.
  1. The word disputed in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. thorough
B. complicated
C. disagreed
D. supported
  1. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 2?
A. There is a definite connection between rising temperatures and increased atmospheric carbon dioxide, though natural causes are also suggested.
B. Evidence shows that rising temperatures and higher carbon dioxide levels are linked, though it remains scientifically debated.
C. A few scientists blame fossil fuel use for rising carbon dioxide, while others attribute it to natural causes.
D. Temperatures and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have risen, with fossil fuels likely contributing, though debates continue.
  1. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the current rate of warming
B. the rise in temperatures
C. a natural occurrence
D. Greenland’s ice sheet
  1. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence “Other scientists emphasise that such doomsday scenarios may be hundreds of years in the future” in paragraph 4?
A. Other scientists suggest that worst-case scenarios are unlikely to happen in the future.
B. Some scientists claim these events are exaggerated and may never happen in hundreds of years.
C. Other scientists argue that these drastic predictions are purely speculative and lack scientific basis.
D. Some scientists stress that catastrophic events could still be far off, occurring centuries from now.
  1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. People nowadays are still heavily dependent on non-renewable energy sources.
B. Stouffer and Marianne Douglas share the idea that global warming is unpredictable.
C. The disappearance of coastal cities can be the worst-case scenario of global warming.
D. Humans are increasingly aware of the serious consequences of climate warming.
  1. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Most scientists agree that global warming poses a major threat, with rising temperatures and sea levels likely impacting low-lying areas significantly, though some believe such events will not become a reality.
B. Global warming, driven by fossil fuels, is raising temperatures and sea levels, with scientists concerned that Greenland’s ice melt could cause devastating rises, though most scientists do not link it to carbon emissions.
C. Rising global temperatures and carbon emissions from fossil fuels threaten the environment, with scientists warning of dramatic sea-level rise and low-lying islands at risk, while debates continue over timing and causes.
D. While many scientists warn that global warming threatens Earth, others believe any severe impacts, such as sea-level rise, are far in the future and uncertain due to possible technological solutions.

PART 3.
Questions 68–75. Read the passage below and fill in each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.8 pt)

A START IN SAILING

Ask any sports enthusiast to name the most popular sports and the stock answer will probably be football, cricket, golf and rugby. A lot of people do play those games but far (68) ______ go fishing, play badminton or sail. Why do we get it wrong? Because sports editors of newspapers and television channels are stuck in their traditional patterns of judging by crowds rather than (69) ______ how many actually go out and do the thing. Sailing probably suffers most from this narrow-mindedness because it is often difficult to report and almost (70) ______ to film except at huge expense.

Yet, (71) ______ the absence of the oxygen of publicity, sailing is one of the most popular participant sports. Why is it so popular in Britain? Possibly because of the great island tradition of being a nation of sailors, but probably much more because of the many opportunities. (72) ______ in Britain is all that far from the sea and there are plenty of rivers and lakes where it is easy to get afloat. But many would-be (73) ______ are discouraged from taking the first steps. They worry about the cost of (74) ______ boat, the need for special equipment, the dangers of tackling the elemental forces of nature and believe that sailing-club people are snobbish and unapproachable. All misconceptions. You can start sailing for next to nothing and find friendly sailing clubs throughout the country where nobody is snobbish or (75) ______ down on beginners.

(Adapted from Certificate in Advanced English)


SECTION FOUR: WRITING (2.5 pts)

PART 1.
Questions 76–80. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, beginning with the given word(s). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. (0.5 pt)

  1. I walked to school in 20 minutes.
    → It took me 20 minutes to walk
  1. The penthouse was so expensive that we couldn’t buy it.
    → So ___________________________________________
  2. His interest in the game increases with his proficiency.
    → The more _____________________________________
  3. I’m sure that she didn’t kill him because she was with me when the murder happened.
    → She can’t ______________________________________
  4. “What a lovely new dress, Jean!”, said her mother.
    → Jean’s mother complimented _____________________
  5. We were all shocked by his reaction.
    → His reaction came _______________________________

PART 2.
Questions 81–85. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in capital. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between THREE and SIX words, including the word given. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. (0.5 pt)

  1. Considering that James is so young, you must admit he’s making excellent progress as a musician. (ACCOUNT)
    → If you _______________________________ young James is, you must admit he’s making excellent progress as a musician.
  2. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night. (RECOLLECTION)
    → My grandfather didn’t _______________________________ me last night.
  3. His action was incomprehensible to his parents. (LOSS)
    → His parents _______________________________ understand his action.
  4. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (REFERENCE)
    → He _______________________________ conversation.
  5. He is different from his brother in almost all aspects. (BEARS)
    → He _______________________________ to his brother.

PART 3.
Write an essay of about 200 words on the following topic. Write your answer on the ANSWER SHEET. (1.5 pts)

The best way to teach children to cooperate is through team sports at school.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.


THE END

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Họ và tên thí sinh: ____________________________   Số báo danh: ____________________________

Giải thích đáp án chi tiết đề Chuyên Anh vào 10 tỉnh Quảng Nam năm 2025-2026 (Bản tham khảo, biên soạn bởi mentors Nhà Xuân)

Cảm ơn quý phụ huynh, thầy cô, và các em học sinh đã tham khảo tài liệu được biên soạn bởi Nhà Xuân.

Với nỗ lực để luôn tạo ra những bài giảng – học liệu hay nhất dành cho kì thi chuyên Anh – HSG tiếng Anh cấp tỉnh/thành phố đến cấp Quốc Gia, đội ngũ mentors trung tâm Springboard (Nhà Xuân) luôn biên soạn những tài liệu mới nhất với giải thích tận tâm – chi tiết.

Quý phụ huynh/ quý thầy cô/các em học sinh có thể truy cập các kênh sau để cập nhật tài liệu mới nhất từ Nhà Xuân:

Liên hệ:

  • Gửi đề thi mới nhất cho Nhà Xuân về địa chỉ: contact@springboard.vn
  • Tham khảo và đăng ký tư vấn các lớp học ôn thi Chuyên Anh – Thi HSG Tiếng Anh cấp THPT – Thi Olympic 30/4 và Duyên Hải Bắc Bộ – Thi HSG cấp Quốc Gia tại:  Form đăng ký tư vấn.

 

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