SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM HỌC: 2025–2026 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN) Ngày thi: 05/6/2025 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

Đề thi có 06 trang

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CHÚ Ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào giấy thi. Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, B, C hoặc D Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)

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PART A: LISTENING Hướng dẫn làm bài nghe: Bài nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong băng.

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Part 1: Listen to FIVE short conversations and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each question. There is one question for each conversation. (5.0 points)

1. How did the girl celebrate her birthday?

A. She went to Paris.

B. She went out with her friends.

C. She went to the theatre.

D. She cooked for her family.

2. What is the cookery programme about?

A. New recipes

B. Celebrities’ diets

C. Food in other countries

D. Cooking competitions

3. Where is Jack going to work?

A. In a supermarket

B. In a restaurant

C. In a clothes shop

D. In a corner shop

4. Where does Megan want Emily to wait for them?

A. Outside the restaurant

B. Inside the restaurant

C. At home

D. Outside the football pitch

5. What does Rob want to talk to Vanessa about?

A. An article

B. A TV programme

C. A radio programme

D. A technology magazine

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Part 2: Listen to two people talking about success in sport. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each question. (5.0 points)

6. What is the girl going to do tonight?

A. Do some tennis training

B. Watch an important tennis match

C. Play in a competition

D. Work at a sports centre

7. The boy thinks that to succeed in sport,

A. talent is the most important element

B. you need a lot of confidence

C. you need other people to believe in you

D. you just need to work hard

8. What else does the boy think is important in order to succeed in sport?

A. The age you start your sport career

B. The encouragement of your parents

C. Attending the best schools in the country

D. Being in the right place at the right time

9. The boy admits that successful players

A. are superstitious and believe in luck

B. are better than their coaches

C. need to spend money

D. rarely take part in tournaments

10. How does the girl feel about her next match?

A. optimistic

B. pessimistic

C. excited

D. frustrated

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Part 3: Listen to a radio phone-in programme. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. (5.0 points)

11. The family had not listened to the news so they were not aware of the __________ until they got to the airport.
12. Martin’s father was unable to get information online because the airline’s website __________.
13. Some seats were all full so they had to sleep on the floor or in their __________.
14. Other European airlines provided waiting passengers with __________.
15. The mother might try to __________ the holiday later because they got no __________ from the airline.

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Part 4: Listen to two people talking about an experiment involving mobile phones. Decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (5.0 points)

16. The experiment was to see when teenagers used their mobile phones the most.
17. Grant’s experience was not as bad as he had imagined it would be.
18. During the week, Grant started to imagine things.
19. For a while, Marian felt disconnected.
20. Marian found that she looked at her watch more during the week.

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PART B: LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions. (9.0 points)

21. Jennifer had ______ left her house ______ it started raining heavily.

A. scarcely/when

B. rather/than

C. no sooner/when

D. hardly/than

22. Suppose a cosmetics brand ______ you to be its ambassador, would you accept?

A. asks

B. asked

C. ask

D. has asked

23. The students appealed to us ______ books and stationery to children in flooded areas.

A. to donate

B. donating

C. donate

D. to donating

24. He would rather his wife ______ dinner last night instead of ordering a ready-made meal.

A. cooked

B. had cooked

C. would cook

D. cook

25. It is urgent that the garbage from the resort ______ properly to minimise pollution.

A. was treated

B. be treated

C. will be treated

D. would be treated

26. If I didn’t know you were asleep, I wouldn’t have made noise when I arrived home.

A. Otherwise

B. Nevertheless

C. Granted

D. In case

27. As the speaker threw his head in various directions, he knew the audience were uninterested in his speech.

A. Seeing them turn

B. Seen them turn

C. Not until he saw them turn

D. Only after he saw them turn

28. He aimed to buy a ______ house and have a more comfortable life before getting married.

A. well-attended

B. well-adjusted

C. well-appointed

D. well-disposed

29. He felt helpless and upset when he could not ______ the bullies at school.

A. stand up to

B. stand up for

C. stand over

D. stand back

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Part 2: Read the following advertisement and news report and choose the best option A, B, C or D that fits each of the numbered blanks. (6.0 points) A job at Wimbledon Wimbledon, which is the world’s oldest tennis tournament, is held every July in London. It’s a hugely popular event, so you can’t just (30) ______ at the gates and buy tickets, even if you can afford them. So how can you get to see your favourite stars playing on those famous courts? One way is to join the thousands of people who manage to get a free view of matches by working there. For young tennis fans, by far the most exciting opportunity is to become a ball boy or girl, known as BBGs. Their job is to collect loose tennis balls and give them to the players, without (31) ______ with play in any way. BBGs are aged 15 on average and have to be available from February, when their highly (32) ______ training begins.

30. A. turn up B. put up C. go up D. build up

31. A. involving B. interfering C. associating D. coping

32. A. appreciative B. profitable C. intensive D. controversial

Weather news Good evening and once again it is the weather that is (33) ______ the headlines. Following last night’s storm there have been reports of severe flooding. Many people have had to be evacuated from their homes and they are now staying in temporary (34) ______. The Prime Minister is expected to hold a press conference in the next hour to outline how the government plans to help. In the meantime, he has asked to (35) ______ as water levels continue to rise. The weather forecast this evening is for yet more torrential rain.

33. A. turning B. making C. taking D. putting

34. A. accommodation B. habitat C. residence D. dwelling

35. A. keep informed B. keep informing C. be kept informed D. be kept informing

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Part 3: For questions 36–40, identify 5 errors in the text below and correct them. (5.0 points) Marie Curie was one of the most famous scientists of her time. She was born in Poland but went to live in Paris to study mathematics and physics. There she met her husband, Pierre Curie, and together they conducted investigations into radioactivity. Their work was very dangerous, but at the end they discovered the chemical element(s) polonium and radium. They were rewarded the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1903. Marie’s happiness was cut shortly when Pierre was killed in a tragic accident. However, she was very determined and took to his teaching post, becoming the first woman to teach at the Sorbonne. She devoted herself to continue their work and eventually won a second Nobel Prize for Chemistry in 1911. Question 36: line ___ error ______ correction ______ Question 37: line ___ error ______ correction ______ Question 38: line ___ error ______ correction ______ Question 39: line ___ error ______ correction ______ Question 40: line ___ error ______ correction ______

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Part 4: Provide the correct form of the word in brackets in each of the following questions. (5.0 points)

41. She made a sudden right turn at the end of the road in order to escape some __________. (PURSUIT)
42. I think the proposal was completely __________ and should be rejected. (WORK)
43. I do not mean to leave your name off the list. It was simply a(n) __________. (SIGHT)
44. It must have rained last night. The grass is very wet. __________ (PROOF)
45. If he accepts the job, it means __________ his family and moving to that coastal town. (ROOT)

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PART C: READING Part 1: The text below has five spaces. Put a given sentence A, B, C, D, E, F or G into its correct space. There are two sentences that you do not need to use. (5.0 points) As part of World Book Day, a campaign to raise interest in and promote the reading of books resulted in an enormous book giveaway on the 23rd April in the UK. One million books were given away by ordinary people, or ‘donors’ as they were called. The way it worked was this. (46) ______ Then, people from all over the UK applied to be a book donor. They had to say on their application form which book from the list they would like to give away and why. If their application was accepted, the donors were sent 48 copies of the book that they had chosen. (47) ______ These were teachers, factory workers, police officers, business people and many more, all united by one thing: a love of books and a desire to encourage others to share that pleasure. The people chosen to give the books to could be people they knew or people they simply met on the night. (48) ______ In recent years, books have had to compete with TV and film as a form of entertainment and today many people are concerned that the value of a book is no longer appreciated as much as it used to be. (49) ______ Certainly, those interviewed on the night were very enthusiastic about the idea. As one donor said, “Many people think that reading books is an intellectual activity and is generally boring. Too many of them have the memory of being forced to read heavy classics at school, probably at far too early an age to really appreciate them, (50) ______ For me, a book opens up a whole new world. I’d really like to pass that pleasure on.” Choose from the sentences below:

• A. It was hoped that World Book Day would introduce books to a wider range of people.
• B. People do not read enough books these days, and that is a great shame.
• C. We have compiled a list of 25 books, including examples of all genres of fiction from thrillers to classics.
• D. There was also that the recipients would then pass on the free book to others after reading it.
• E. (Not used)
• F. On Saturday 23rd April, these people all gave away their copies of the book to whoever they wanted.
• G. This can put them off reading for life.

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Part 2: Choose the option A, B, C or D that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (10.0 points)

Technology in the classroom

Technology plays a large part in the lives of most students today. More and more students have their own computers at home or even laptops (51)___________.

Many schools equip their classrooms with computers for use during lessons, and students are expected to be computer literate at an early age. In some schools, the need to use reference books has mainly been replaced by easy access to information online. (52)___________

The world of learning is changing quickly and dramatically. In Denmark, the government is taking the use of computers in schools one step further. Computers are now being used in the exam room. (53)___________

Using computers in exams is not completely new for Danish students. They have been able to type up their exam essays on computers (54)___________ for several years.

However, now, under a new scheme, students in exams are allowed complete access to the Internet. The rules say that they can go on any website they wish. The only thing they cannot do (55)___________.

Opponents of the idea point out that (56)___________. There is also concern that (57)___________. They say it is impossible to monitor the sites the students visit or any contact they may make with friends outside or inside the exam room.

However, supporters believe that we should trust the students. They point out that exams these days (58)___________. Now examination questions do not usually ask about when, who or what. They ask why and how. It is hard to cheat using the Internet on questions like this.

Surely, (59)___________ that it is a natural step to use them in exams. For those worried about cheating, it is important to remember that in exams the students are under a lot of pressure and have to do a lot of things in a very short time. (60)

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Question 51:

A.	because such devices can do online research for projects and assignments
B.	despite doing online research for projects and assignments
C.	so that they can do online research for projects and assignments
D.	whose projects and assignments can be researched online

Question 52:

A.	Moreover, whether school libraries were really necessary is being discussed.
B.	Therefore, school libraries are no longer as necessary as they once were.
C.	Undoubtedly, there are more school libraries than ever.
D.	Indeed, school libraries have never played such an important role.

Question 53:

A.	Therefore, a fair amount of controversy will engender.
B.	In reality, there may be a big controversy for this issue.
C.	In that case, it was a fairly controversial issue.
D.	Unsurprisingly, this is causing a fair amount of controversy.

Question 54:

A.	in order to write them by hand
B.	in spite of having them write by hand
C.	instead of writing them by hand
D.	so that they do not have to write it by hand

Question 55:

A.	means communicating with others online
B.	is communicate with anyone else online
C.	is to communicate with no one else on the Internet
D.	by communicating with people via the Internet

Question 56:

A.	all the computers are difficult to work at the same speed with students
B.	it is difficult to ensure that all the computers are working at the same speed
C.	students have difficulty ensuring all the computers to work at the same speed
D.	ensuring that all the computers can work at the same speed was difficult

Question 57:

A.	computers are the door to exams with cheating
B.	if exams take place on computers, they will cheat students
C.	using computers in exams opens the door to cheating
D.	without computers in exams, it opens the door to cheating

Question 58:

A.	when the memorisation of facts and figures is tested
B.	do not have facts and figures remembered any longer
C.	are no longer about remembering facts and figures
D.	remembering facts and figures is no longer important

Question 59:

A.	computers are such an important part of the learning process today
B.	computers have an important role in the learning process today
C.	the learning process with the aid of computers today is very important
D.	computers whose role is so important in the learning process today

Question 60:

A.	Exams are likely to become a standard procedure on computers in a few years.
B.	Establishing a standard procedure for computers to take exams will be easy in a few years’ time.
C.	Perhaps computer use in exams will become a standard procedure in a few years’ time.
D.	Whether it is possible to standardise computers in exam procedures in a few years.

PART 3: READING COMPREHENSION (10.0 points) Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions.

After the sudden loss of a close relative, Catherine Kelly, a geographer, heard the call of the sea. She left London and accepted an academic position on the Irish west coast. She thought she needed to go and get her head cleared in that place, to be blown away by the wind and nature. She swam and walked along the beach twice a day. “I guess the five or six years I spent there on the wild Atlantic coast just healed me, really.” She did not understand why that might be until some years later, when she started to see scientific literature that proved what she had long felt to be true: that she felt much better by the sea.

In recent years, stressed-out people from urban areas have been seeking peace and quiet in green spaces. There are plenty of proven arguments for the positive impacts of green spaces such as inner-city parks and accessible woodlands on physical and mental health. However, the benefits of blue spaces – seas, rivers, lakes, canals, waterfalls and even fountains – are less well publicised.

Scientists have recently confirmed that spending time near water, especially the sea, is associated with many positive measures of physical and mental well-being, from higher levels of vitamin D to better social relations. Many of the processes are exactly the same as with green spaces – with some added benefits. An extensive study on happiness in natural environments across 18 countries asked 20,000 smartphone users to record their sense of well-being and their immediate environment at random intervals. Marine and coastal regions were found to be the happiest locations, with responses approximately six points higher than in an urban environment.

Although living within 1 km of the coast – and to a lesser extent, within 5 km – has been associated with better physical and mental health, it seems that making frequent visits is the key. The research suggests that people who visit the coast at least twice weekly tend to gain more benefits. Besides, being by the sea around two hours a week is probably beneficial across many parts of society. Even sea views have proved to improve mental health.

“People work with what they have,” says Kelly. When she lived in London, she would head for the river Thames when she had spare time. She adds, “To go to the coast means taking it easy. It could be lying on a beach or walking along a wild, empty shoreline. Your shoulders simply drop at the sight of the sea.”

61. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

A. Blue spaces will soon replace green spaces in cities.

B. A simple life on the coast is the key to happiness.

C. Spending time near water can improve well-being.

D. There should be more research on blue spaces.

62. What do we learn about Kelly in the first paragraph?

A. She wanted to take up swimming.

B. She wanted to get a better job.

C. She decided to leave her country.

D. She felt she had to live by the sea.

63. What did Kelly realise about her stay on the coast of Ireland?

A. The academic research she had read was correct.

B. She had been wrong to doubt the benefits of rural life.

C. Living there had enabled her to make a recovery.

D. She could never be happy living so far from other people.

64. The phrase “get her head cleared” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. think deeply

B. exercise her mind

C. calm her mind

D. make herself clear

65. The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to

A. walking along the beach

B. moving to the Irish coast

C. being healed by the sea

D. reading scientific research

66. What is suggested about spending time in woodland areas?

A. It is less beneficial than being close to water.

B. There are no health benefits unless there is water nearby.

C. There is no evidence that it improves people’s health.

D. It is always healthier than being in urban green zones.

67. The word “publicised” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.

A. revealed

B. disclosed

C. concealed

D. quoted

68. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. Blue spaces have long been proved more useful than green spaces.

B. Marine environments are the best cure for mental illnesses.

C. Water-related environments boost various aspects of health.

D. Urban environments have stronger effects on health than natural ones.

69. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in bold in paragraph 3?

A. People living near oceans are six times happier than those in cities.

B. Coastal areas were significantly rated as more joyful than city areas.

C. Happiness levels were doubled in coastal areas compared to urban ones.

D. Marine environments helped people feel most relaxed and composed.

70. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Longevity can be attributed to living near water.

B. People must visit the sea daily to get more mental benefits.

C. Seeing the sea from a window can improve mental health.

D. People work more efficiently when they are close to water.

PART D: WRITING Part 1: Sentence transformation (5.0 points) a. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first one, using the word given.
Do not change the word given. Use NO MORE THAN FIVE words, including the word given.

71. She decided to lose some weight for fear of chronic diseases. (PROMPTED)
    → The fear of chronic diseases __________________________________________ some weight.
72. It was wrong of the prosecution lawyer to make negative influence on the jury about her. (PREJUDICED)
    → The prosecution lawyer should not ____________________________________ her.

b. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the original sentence.

73. There is a slim chance that the new library will have been ready by September.
    → The new library is __________________________________________
74. It never occurred to her that her new album would become a hit.
    → At no time __________________________________________
75. No one expected it to snow heavily last night.
    → Last night’s heavy snow came __________________________________________

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Part 2: Email writing (10.0 points)

You have received this email from your English-speaking friend, Jo.

Hi,
I hope you did well in your exams. This summer, I’m collecting proverbs and sayings that are popular among teenagers. What is your favourite proverb or saying? Tell me its meaning and why you like it.
Enjoy your holiday and remember to write back soon.
Best,
Jo

Write your email (100–120 words) to answer him. You are required to begin and end your email as followed:

Dear Jo,
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Ha An

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Part 3: Paragraph writing (15.0 points)

Write a paragraph (150–170 words) to express your opinion on the following topic:
There are many ways that technology can help teenagers maintain a well-balanced life. Do you agree?

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—————————– HẾT —————————–

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ………………………………… Phòng thi: ……………
Cán bộ coi thi số 1: ………………………………………………
Cán bộ coi thi số 2: ………………………………………………